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A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her major depressive disorder, which...

A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her major depressive disorder, which is being treated with the starting dosage of escitalopram. Most of her symptoms have now improved. However, she has noted anorgasmia since taking this medication. This has significantly affected her relationship with her wife. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A.

Increase the patient's dosage of escitalopram

B.

Switch escitalopram to venlafaxine

C.

Add bupropion

D.

Maintain the current medication

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