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A 59-year-old woman is referred to you because of a 2-month history of left nipple...

A 59-year-old woman is referred to you because of a 2-month history of left nipple discharge. She is otherwise healthy and is not on any medication. There are no palpable lesions on breast examination. She is able to express a small amount of blood-tinged liquid from her breast. Which one of the following would be the best next step?

A.

Biopsy of nipple complex.

B.

Mammography.

C.

Serum prolactin.

D.

Galactography.

E.

Magnetic resonance imaging of breast.

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